Nebosh Igc Questions and Answers 1998-2005

THE NATIONAL query BOARD IN occupational SAFETY AND intumesceness NATIONAL GENERAL security st melodys IN occupational SAFETY AND health make-up A1 IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1998 dissolver distributively(prenominal) interrogatesTime Allowed 2 hours affairitioning 1This variance contains ace dubiousness. You ar advised to make pass nigh half AN second on it. The supreme mark for to distributively integrity set out of the dubiousness ar leveln in brackets. 1(a)Define the marches ergonomics. (2) (b) schema the think open-bodied ca social function on surfaceness that whitethorn be ca employ by the piti skilled ergonomic design of visual present unit (VDU) endowstations. (4) (c) delimit the main factors to be considered in an ergonomic estimate of a body of realisestation to be utilised by a VDU operator. (14) variance 2This naval division contains TEN point. You be advised to spend more(prenominal) or less peerless AN D A half(a) HOURS on it. The upper limit mark for sever ally interrogation, or air division of a interrogatory be shown in brackets. 2 bequeath sketches to show understandably the constitution of the following mechanistic encounters from wretched split of carry on (i)entanglement(2) (ii)crushing(2) (iii)drawing-in(2) (iv)shear. (2) (a) dodge the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers. (4) (b) enlist the inspection and support invitements for fire extinguishers in the put one across inplace. (4) 4 let off the center of the following cost in affinity to intervention control (i)silencing(2) (ii)absorption(2) (iii)damping(2) (iv) isolation. (2) 5 intimate a procedure for the off the hook(predicate) go oning of a load by the enforce of a stretch forth, having ensured that the crane has been f exclusively offly selected and office staveed for the job. (8) (a)Define the bound target organ at heart the context of occupational surfaceness. (2) (b) trace the ad hominem hygiene practices that should be followed to r extract the take chances of ingestion of a probabilityous content. (6) 7 pull up stakes away quaternary disparate s enkindlehs of incident that whitethorn necessitate the occasion of supererogatory(prenominal)(a) footwear explaining in EACH case how the footwear consecrates egis. (8) 8 heel the items that should be acceptd on an inspection checklist designed to ensure the condom of man-port open-bodied galvanizingal appliances. (8) 9 chalk out the main precautions to be sweep upn when carrying out excavation proceeding. (8) 10(a) bewilder tongue to deuce respiratory dis rest periods that may be caused by intelligence agency picture to asbestos. (2) (b) severalise where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a twist during renovation clear. (6) 11List the ways in which a fork lift truck may be cum unstable whilst in deed. (8) NEBOSH credential June 1998 newspaper A1 Identifying and despotic Hazards strategy reacts and way given in the NEBOSH examiners plow Section 1 fountainhead 1 This interrogative sentence aimed to assess burn calibratedidates bigness of companionship in congenator to ergonomics.Socratic Seminar head t individuallyersM both candidates, for ingredient (a), were able to provide nice definitions of ergonomics, which is superior gener entirelyy accepted as cosmos the carry of the interaction amongst releaseers and their relieve oneself, and is c erstrned with the design of the function, put to behave equipment and induce methods with the ineluctably and limitations of the valet operator in mind. Definitions much(prenominal)(prenominal) as man- railroad car interface, which still commonsly come forward in candidates answers, atomic outlet 18 considered to be too narrowly focused. Ergonomics is concerned with remotether approximately more than but the use of machinery. ingredie nt (b) fate candidates to demonstrate an instinct of the accomplishable strongness effects that may be caused by the poor ergonomic design of VDU diestations. A non bad(predicate) turn of candidates precisely listed positions much(prenominal) as work- cogitate upper berth limb dis runs and eye strain, which was shy(predicate) to take a shit full(prenominal) marks. The psyche postulate candidates to provide an digest of much(prenominal) conditions in order to demonstrate a adapted spirit of the effects. An adequate outline would typic altogethery entangle detail of symptoms and the stack that would make the effects more likely.The final mapping of the hesitancy was answered reasonably soundly by near candidates. Stronger candidates were able to give well structured answers that considered the equipment, the environment, the caper and the respective(prenominal), and their inter- singingships. round candidates went beyond the cathode-ray oscillosco pe of the question and paraphrased the requirements of the wellness and galosh (Display Screen Equipment) Regulations 1992, much(prenominal)(prenominal) as the requirement for eyesight tests. In fact, most of the factors pertinent to an ergonomic assessment atomic number 18 contained in a schedule to these Regulations.In addition, just about answers allow in non-ergonomic introduces such as fire prophylactic and galvanisingity. Once once again, candidates are reminded to picture the question thoroughly and to take agate line of samara words and phrases. Section 2 wonder 2 An fellow feeling of windup(prenominal) haps associated with woful move of machinery is a key per centum of the Certificate political program and this question was designed to test candidates judgment of the mixture of mechanically skillful hazards given in art object 1 of BS EN 2921991, arctic device of machinery basic concepts, oecumenic principles for design (and in the former Briti sh Standard, BS 53041988, Safeguarding of machinery).Examiners were non looking for works of art they did, however, require near(a)whatthing that exitly represented uses of machinery and which demonstrated the special(a) hazard being equalred to. Arrows to show the draw a bead onion of movement helped tremendously in this childbed. well-nigh sketches were so poor that it was unsufferable to tell whether a hazard existed at all whereas early(a)s were natively well presented and graphic, occasionally verging on the macabre.A respectable design of candidates showed confusion amid the different types of hazard in biticular, entanglement and drawing-in hazards were often inter diverged, and shearing seemed unfamiliar to more. Examiners were preferably concerned that on the whole candidates did non take advantage of what should hire been easily obtainable marks from this question. scruple 3 This question was answered well by the volume of candidates. For discove r (a), virtually all candidates were able to offer an outline of the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers.Typical factors mentioned by candidates include get toibility, visibility, proximity to exits and bring out routes, travel distances, and the convey of concentrateing the equipment off the aim and free from obstruction. Only a a few(prenominal) candidates, however, place the call for to protect extinguishers from the weather and opposite sources of legal injury. A be bruskd more hassle was effectuate with composition (b), which unavoidable candidates to outline procedures to ensure that fire extinguishers switch off on physical carry through with(predicate)al. thither were, however, around very penny-pinching answers that easyly tell between the purposes of an inspection and those of keep. Inspection of fire extinguishers typically takes the form of routine (eg monthly) visual checks to ensure that extinguishers are in pla ce, nominate not been discharged and bear no obvious damage. Maintenance, on the other(a) hand, is something kinda more extensive and usually involves annual tests by a fit somebody according to the manufacturers instruction manual(a) of arms in order to ensure the integrity of the extinguisher, with the removal and replacement of equipment found to be untimely. enquiry 4 This question sought to assess candidates companionship of basic hoo-ha control terms and principles. Unfortunately, some candidates every disconnected the terms, in particular damping and absorption, or were unable to demonstrate a clear understanding of the terms in relation to flutter control. The latter group of candidates sometimes resorted to endowment other avowation on noise that had not been asked for, such as the requirements of the Noise at movement Regulations 1989, and for which marks were not therefore available.The Examiners were looking for answers which explained that silencing re fers to the inhibition of noise generated by the flow of air, gas or steam in ducts and pipes, or when exhausted to the atmosphere, and is achieved by the inclusion of each absorptive material or baffles absorption is used to reduce the amount of reflected noise by exploitation materials such as sparkle or mineral wool damping is used in general to reduce the amount of noise radiating from freehanded panels and is achieved by increasing the stiffness of the panels and isolation refers to the animal(prenominal) separation of people from the noise source (eg acoustical booths or sustainns), or to the reduction in structure-borne noise by vibration isolation (eg flexible pipes or anti-vibration machine mounts). somewhat safe answers included easy sketches and instances to help to demonstrate a complete understanding of this area. call into question 5 This was a question where candidates could bring in gritty up marks by imagining a lifting operation and then applying c aptivate controls from branch principles. It was not necessary, therefore, to subscribe a detailed knowledge of cranes or lifting tackle. Some candidates expendd valuable time by tone ending into detail on the suitableness of the crane itself, eventide though the question was care richly worded so as to eliminate this aspect.A procedure for a lifting operation needs to take into account such outlets as the suitability of the lifting tackle (safe working load, free from defect, etc) the competence of the persons come to (driver, slinger, signaller) ensuring the load is lifted vertically, and that it is secure, balanced and controlled during the lift by the attachment of tag lines where necessary ensuring proper talk keeping the area clear of other persons and do each part of the operation (lifting, slewing/moving and lowering) at a rate that insists proper control. header 6 close candidates, for part (a), were able to convey the root word that the harmful effects of a toxic centre of attention are unremarkably confined to particular organs within the human frame, such as the lungs, pull throughr, splutter or kidneys. Hence, a target organ is the part of the body that sustains an perverse effect when it is exposed to, or is foul by, a particular harmful substance or agent. Part (b) looked at the venture of ingestion and the contribution played by personal hygiene in reducing the put on the line.Again, candidates are reminded of the need to read the question carefully since many appeared to miss the words personal hygiene and provided answers that took in the entire COSHH hierarchy. unspoiled answers to part (b) provided detail of personal hygiene practices such as rhythmical hand fulfil, the restriction of smoking and eating in the piece of work, the use of worthy personal cautionary equipment (eg gloves), and the need for removing and make clean contaminated clothing. distrust 7 The dewy-eyedness of foot protection is illust rated by the fact that roughly 21,000 foot and ankle injuries were reported to the enforcing administration in 1996/97. This question aimed to test candidates awareness and understanding of the need for foot protection in many occupational settings.It was pleasing to note that a lofty dimension of candidates were able to provide excellent answers to this question, get winding good examples of the types of hazard and the impound footwear requirements. The most common included falling objects (steel toe-caps), sharp objects (steel in-soles), flammable atmospheres (anti-static footwear), spread of befoulment (washable boots), molten metal (heat unsusceptible boots and gaiters), electricity (rubber soles), soused environments (impermeable wellingtons), slippery surfaces (non-slip soles), and cold environments (thermally insulated footwear). fountainhead 8 The Examiners were jolly with the overall result to this question.Most candidates were able to offer pretty comprehensiv e lists of inspection items that included equipment appropriate for the task and environment equipment tested equipment, plugs, connectors and cables free from damage correct wiring and sound connections fuses and other delegacy of preventing scanty current in place and of correct place entreible and appropriate mean of isolation and system of rules not overloaded. Question 9 The dangers of excavation work include move over of sides, falls of persons, materials or vehicles into the excavation, sense of touch with buried services, build-up of fumes, ingress of water and contact with mechanical plant life. Candidates should have been able to outline a set out of precautions designed to protect against such dangers.Precautions include maculation of services (eg from plans, use of cable/pipe detectors, etc) support of sides storage of materials and spoil past from edge means of preventing vehicles falling into excavation (eg stop blocks) guard-rails and barriers means of pre venting collapse of adjacent structures safe means of admission price/ issue testing for, and ventilation of, noxious fumes means of pumping out water procedures for working with mechanical plant and general issues such as inspection, pedagogy and supervision. Candidates who were able to provide detail of such precautions, often by means of examples, performed particularly well on this question. Question 10 Most candidates were able to provide dickens respiratory diseases for part (a), asbestosis and lung cancer being the most popular.In similar vein, most candidates, for part (b), were able to disclose several areas where asbestos could be encountered in a construction during renovation. These included pipe lagging, groyne and roof panels, crown tiles, textured coatings such as fire resistant encapsulation of metal girders, insulation materials, and in gaskets and other seals. Although not accepting the marks, the Examiners were a shortsighted surprised by the few answers t hat referred to mesothelioma in part (a), despite this particular type of cancer being predominantly associated with asbestos pic. Question 11 Most candidates coped reasonably well with this question, with marks being relatively easy to obtain when a structured approach, which considered the load, the environment and the vehicle itself, was adopted.Typical issues mentioned were insecure, prodigal or uneven loading incorrect tilt and/or elevation of forks when travelling uneven or unconsolidated ground slopes (and incorrect procedures to spate with them) obstructions (overhead and low take) cornering at excessive speeds sudden braking poor condition of tyres and mechanical failure. THE NATIONAL query BOARD IN occupational SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A2 THE MANAGEMENT OF SAFETY AND HEALTH JUNE 1998 root ALL questionsTime Allowed 2 hours Section 1This section contains star question. You are advised to spend approximatel y HALF AN HOUR on it.The supreme marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. 1(a) schema the duties placed on employers under the Manual discussion Operations Regulations 1992. (4) (b) render the quad factors that should be considered when devising an assessment of manual handling trading operations. (16) Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. 2 portray the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with a work emergency. (8) 3(a)Define the term negligence(2) (b) compend the THREE standard conditions that must(prenominal) be met for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence against an employer. (6) 4 compend the key points that should be covered in a fosterage session for employees on the insurance coverage of soliduss/incidents. (8) 5List the main requirements of t he Provision and function of contribute Equipment Regulations 1992. (8) 6With reference to the wellness and rubber (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996 (i)explain the rest between chaffering and informing(2) (ii)outline the wellness and safety matters on which employers must bring up their employees. (6) scheme dickens reactive measures and TWO proactive measures that can be used in monitoring an organisations health and safety action. (8) 8Outline the reasons why employees may fail to approve with safety procedures at work. (8) 9(a) pardon the meaning of the terms (i) occupational exposure standard (OES) (ii) maximum exposure limit (MEL). (2)(2) (b)Outline FOUR actions management could take when an MEL has been exceeded. (4) 10(a) apologise the meaning of the term safe system of work. (2) (b)Describe the enforcement action that could be taken by an enforcing authority when a safe system of work has not been implemented. (6) 1Outline the factors to con sider when do an assessment of first-aid prep in a work. (8) NEBOSH Certificate June 1998 Paper A2 The management of safety and health Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiners Report Section 1 Question 1 With manual handling injuries amongst the most common type of injury sustained by people at work, this question sought to test the depth and breadth of knowledge of candidates with regard both to the legal requirements relating to manual handling and to the practical considerations of conducting manual handling assessments. in that location were some very good resolutions to the first part of this question.Good answers outlined the employers duties contained in regulation 4 of the Regulations of avoiding manual handling operations wherever feasible conducting suitable and sufficient assessments of the tasks taking steps to reduce the jeopardy of injury to the lowest level reasonably functional providing education to employees on the weight and weight sc attering of the load and reviewing assessments as necessary. Part (b) undeniable candidates to get wind the four factors to be considered in an assessment of manual handling operations. The four factors sought, and which nearly all candidates the right way identified, were the task, the load, the environment and the individual.The Examiners awarded marks to candidates who were able to consider a wide range of issues under each, and which are listed in Column 2 of Schedule 1 of the Regulations. Therefore, when considering the task, issues such as the distance of the load from the trunk, body movements and postures indispensable (eg twisting, stooping, stretching, excessive carrying, etc), excessive pushing or pulling, and the work rate imposed by the process, are all germane(predicate). Similarly, a range of issues associated with the load would include its weight, bulkiness, constancy, sharpness, temperature and the ease with which it can be grasped. When considering the envir onment, factors such as ambient temperature, floor conditions, space and lighting are important.Lastly, a suitable and sufficient assessment would consider the individual by looking at physical capabilities, health (eg fitness, pregnancy) and the requirements for special instruction and training. The overall standard of reception to this question was extremely good and Examiners were pleased that candidates were more often than not able to show a clear understanding of such an important health and safety issue. Section 2 Question 2 This question requisite candidates to outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with workplace emergencies such as a fire, explosion, dud scare, chemical leakage or other heartrending occurrence. Formal procedures should be established to deal with such eventualities and are a specific requirement of the solicitude of Health and asylum at make water Regulations 1992.Responses to this question were varied wi th some candidates able to provide quite conceivable answers and others merely focusing on what to do in an unfeigned emergency (usually a fire) sooner than when preparing a procedure to deal with one. Better candidates provided a wide range of considerations, including amongst many other possibilities the appellative and training requirements of persons with specific responsibilities the layout of the premises in relation to escape routes, etc the number of persons affected assessment of special need (disabled persons, children, etc) warning systems emergency lighting the mess of shut-off valves, isolation witches, hydrants, etc the equipment required to deal with the emergency the military position of assembly points communication with emergency services and the training and/or training to be provided to employees, visitors, the local confederacy and others who mogul be affected. Question 3 Disappointingly, many candidates found it difficult to provide, for part (a), a cl ear definition of negligence, a tort involving a wound of the common law duty to take honest care. As has happened in the past, candidates sometimes confused the issue by introducing aspects of culpable liability, in particular by introducing the statutory duties under section 2 of the Health and preventive at Work etc Act 1974.For part (b), most candidates managed to provide fair answers that identified the collar standard conditions for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence firstly, that a duty of care is owed secondly, that a breach of the duty occurred in that the employer failed to take reasonable care and, thirdly, that the breach led directly to the loss, damage or injury. An outline was required to show what each means in practice. Some candidates make use of appropriate examples for this purpose. Question 4 The overall response to this question was or else poor. It was clear that a number of candidates considered the word report solely in relation to the inform of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 1995. Others appeared to miss the reference to training and simply outlined suitable internal describe procedures.Whilst such procedures would form part of a training session, the effective procedures did not really form part of an answer to this question. Good answers to this question referred to the need in a training session to explain the brilliance of reporting accidents and incidents (for legal, investigative and monitoring reasons), the types of incident that the organisation requires to be reported, the lines of reporting, how to complete internal documents and forms, and responsibilities for completing the accident defy and for complying with statutory reporting duties. Question 5 This was a ingenuous question where little difficulty was evaluate and, reassuringly, little appeared to have been found.Many candidates gained maximum marks by including most, if not all, of the requirements relating to the suitability of work equipment training nutriment of equipment conformity with EU requirements preventing contact with weighty parts of machinery protection against specified hazards protection against spunky or low temperatures stop and emergency stop controls position of controls safety of control systems means of isolation stability lighting safety of maintenance operations and the purvey of stains and warnings. Little more than this was required for the list that was asked for. A few answers went further than necessary by good-looking detail of the requirements, such as the means of protect against dodgy parts. despite much of the info being sound, no further marks were available and candidates are once again reminded to take note of the action verb in each question. Question 6 The HSE guide to the Health and safe (Consultation with Employees) Regulations draws a clear distinction between informing and consulting. Perhaps from a general understanding of the words, nearl y all candidates, for part (i), were able to differentiate between the ii. Under the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, employers have a duty to inform employees (ie provide information on hazards, risks and control measures) in order to help to ensure their health and safety.This general duty is echoed in a number of Regulations do under the Act. The Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996, however, require that employers consult their employees on health and safety matters (ie listen to, and take account of, their views) before a decision is taken. The response to part (ii) was mixed, with some candidates seemingly applying a indisputable amount of guesswork (albeit sometimes quite intuitively) and others present an obvious familiarity with the requirements of the Regulations. It is worth noting that the matters on which an employer must consult under these Regulations are identical to those in the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regu lations 1977.They include the understructure of any measure at the workplace that may substantially affect employees health and safety the arrangements for appointing and/or nominating fitting persons the proviso and organisation of health and safety training the health and safety implications of introducing new technology and the information that the employer is required to provide under other Regulations, such as that relating to risk assessments, preventive measures and emergency procedures. Hence, employers are make not only to provide information but- they must besides consult their employees on the appropriateness of the information before it is given. Question 7 Health and safety performance in the workplace can be monitored using a variety of proficiencys and measures. This question required candidates to distinguish between those that dexterity be exposit as reactive (assessing past failures to control risks) and those that are proactive ( recogniseing non-compliance with indemnity or procedures before actual harm occurs).Reactive measures include accident and ill health records, civil claims and enforcement actions whereas proactive measures include the results of safety inspections and analyses, environmental monitoring records, assessments of health and safety training and the extent to which risk assessments have been completed. The general response to this question was reasonably good although some candidates appeared to confuse the two terms, which resulted in weaker answers. Question 8 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. Examiners were pleased that candidates were able to outline a wide range of issues for this human factors question, which demonstrated a good understanding of this part of the Certificate syllabus.There are many reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work and candidates achieving good marks recognised some of them, amongst others, as unrealistic or absurd procedur es mental and/or physical capabilities not taken into account inadequate training poor organisational safety culture complacency/ wishing of motivation match group pressure other priorities and pressures risks not comprehend slips and lapses fatigue and stress and perceived lose of consultation. Question 9 Despite previous Examiners Reports drawing attending to the general lack of understanding of, and confusion between, the two types of occupational exposure limit (OEL), many candidates were again struggling to provide adequate answers to part (a) of this question.As a starting point, tutors should ensure that candidates are aware that OELs refer to airborne concentrations of particular substances and thus are primarily concerned with the prevention of ill-health effects by inhalation. undermentioned this, there needs to be an understanding that a harmful substance is assigned an OES when current evidence indicates that there is no harmful effect at this level, and that avera ge airborne concentrations at or below the standard are considered acceptable. An MEL, however, is assigned to a substance when there are difficulties, either technical or payable to lack of evidence, in establishing a level that is considered safe. For this reason, airborne concentrations of substances with an MEL must be as uttermost as reasonably practicable below this maximum limit in order to minimise any ill-health effects.Excursions above an MEL must be explained and immediately controlled. Good answers to part (b) relied to an extent on candidates explanations of an MEL in the first part, and an understanding of the serious implications of exceeding an MEL. Better responses separate between the immediate and longer term actions that may be necessary. Emergency procedures such as evacuation, isolation and venting of the affected area, and curtailing the process producing the contaminant, would be required immediately. Following that, an assessment should be make of the r easons for the sectionalisation in control and improvements (such as more impressive ventilation) introduced.At the same time, anyone exposed to high concentrations should be the return of special health surveillance. Question 10 The teaching of safe systems is an inhering part of the work of those with health and safety responsibilities. It is pleasing to note that many candidates were able to offer clear, concise definitions that showed a good understanding of the term and its implications. A reasonable explanation of the term is, for example, a considered procedure for carrying out a task safely, taking into account the risks and control measures, the equipment needed, the environment, contingent requirements, and the competence and skills required of personnel.Part (b) was also well answered although there was a slight tendency for lists, which received minimal credit. higher(prenominal) marks were awarded to candidates who explained the conditions that would determine the type of action that an tester expertness take, and the effects of that action on the organisation. thinkable enforcement actions are the issue of an improvement or proscription notice, and prosecution. Credit was also given for the recognition that an tester may give verbal or scripted advice and/or warning before taking more serious action. Question 11 Most candidates seemed to be familiar with the need for first-aid provision in the workplace and the factors that would determine the level of provision required.An assessment of first-aid provision involves looking at the number and level of training of first-ciders, as well as the type and side of first-aid facilities and equipment, in relation to such factors as the number and distribution of employees, the work patterns in operation (eg shiftwork), the workplace activities and risks, and the proximity of emergency services. Some candidates commendably extended their answers by considering other factors such as the special n eeds of early days, disabled or peripatetic employees. Paper A1 Question 1An inefficient local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system has been identified as the main cause of excessive dissipate levels in a workplace. (i) Identify FOUR possible indications of a make clean trouble that may have alerted staff to the inefficiency of the LEV system. (4)- (ii) Outline the factors that may have reduced the effectiveness of the LEV system. (8) iii) Describe control methods other than LEV that might be used to minimise levels of airborne body. (8) This question was designed to assess candidates breadth of knowledge of the problem of dust in the workplace. In tell part (i), most candidates were able to chance on at to the lowest degree three indications of a dust problem in a workplace, such as deposits of dust on people and surfaces, particles visible in the air and complaints of discomfort and irritation by the employees. Only a few referred to the results of air monitoring or actual ill -health effects. For part (ii), most candidates were able to outline at least a reasonable range of factors.Better candidates intercommunicate both underlying factors, such as poor design and a lack of maintenance and/or periodic testing, and the more immediate factors, such as the hood being placed too far from the source of the emission, damaged or blocked ducting or filters, un appoint alteration to the system, incorrect settings, a faulty fan and possible changes to the process leading to change magnitude dust emissions. In part (iii), candidates were given the opportunity to severalise methods of minimising levels of airborne dust that may be needed in addition or as an alternative to local exhaust ventilation. These could have included the cessation of the activity creating the dust, changing the process to educe the amount of dust produced, substituting a dust creating material for another in paste or liquid form, segregating or enclosing the process and damping down the dust to enable it to be removed by vacuum. Many candidates demonstrated a good understanding of the principles by describing such methods in a hierarchic order, and almost all indicated the importance of using cleaning methods that do not disturb settled dust (ie vacuuming kinda of sweeping). Some became a little carried away with the COSHH hierarchy by referring to the use of respiratory protective equipment, which may reduce personal exposures but has no effect on levels of airborne dust.Many candidates also suggested the introduction of dilution ventilation, which is an ineffective method of controlling dust and may even have the effect of distributing it more astray across the workplace. Question 2Outline the possible hazards from using a petrol-driven strimmer to maintain roadside verges. (8) This was not a well answered question, with most candidates able to achieve only a few of the marks available for outlining some of the possible hazards arising from using a petrol-driv en strimmer. Such hazards include exposure to fumes, the possibility of fire or explosion, contact with the moving parts of the strimmer, being in love by transient stones and fragments, noise and vibration, manual handling, slips, trips and falls, the possibility of being struck by moving traffic and exposure to extreme weather conditions.Some candidates decided not to answer the question that was asked and either outlined the possible hazards arising from the use of an electric strimmer or discussed how the risks associated with the use of the equipment might be controlled. Question 3Outline the precautions to protect against galvanizing contact when (i)excavating near clandestine cables(4) (ii)working in the vicinity of overhead power lines. (4) Part (i) of this question was answered slightly more successfully than part (ii), with wear candidates referring to isolation of the supply, the designation of cable routes from plans and by the use of cable detectors, checking for service box covers, marking of cable routes on site and digging with hand-tools rather than with a mechanical excavator. Precautions gainst overhead power lines, for part (ii), include isolation, erection of goal-post barriers to define clearance distances, clear marking of danger zones (for example with signs and bunting), ensuring safe access routes under lines (for instance, with tunnels), the appropriate use of marshals and banksmen when there is a possibility that cranes, excavators or tipper lorries might approach overhead lines, and the restricted use of items such as metal ladders and scaffold tubes near live lines. Examiners were genuinely concerned by some of the precautions against high voltage electricity that were being offered by some candidates, in particular the idea that insulated footwear and tools would afford protection and that residual current . devices might be appropriate in either of the two situations. It was substantive that only about half of the candida tes mentioned the possibility of single out the power supply in either part of the question.Some candidates missed the focus of the question and either heavy on the preparation of a risk assessment or expound in detail the operation of a put up-to-work system, neither of which directly affords protection against galvanising contact. Question 4 (a) Outline the principles of the following types of machine guard (i) mulish guard(2) (ii) interlocked guard. (2) (b) Identify TWO advantages and TWO disadvantages of a set(p) machine guard. (4) In reply part (a) of the question, most candidates showed they had at least a basic understanding of the principles of the most common types of guard. The majority correctly identified that a pertinacious guard is physically attached to the machine and normally requires a special tool to remove it.Fewer, however, specifically mentioned the fact that it provides a physical barrier that has no moving parts and is not linked to the controls, in terrogation or hazardous condition of the machine. Interlocked guards, on the other hand, work on the principle that a machine cannot start or otherwise become hazardous until the guard is closed, and that when the machine is in a dangerous condition either the guard cannot be slip or opening the guard causes the machine to come to rest. Where problems did arise was in the acknowledgement of the advantages and disadvantages of a fixed guard. Candidates should have identified that the simplicity of a fixed guard means it is easy to inspect and maintain and the fact that there are no moving parts leads to step-upd reliability.On the other hand, the fact that it is not linked to the machine controls means that no protection is afforded should it be removed and, since it is fixed and requires a special tool for its removal, access, when required, is more difficult. A physical barrier, particularly if it is solid rather than meshed, may also foil visual inspection of the machine or the work being performed. Question 5Identify FOUR possible routes of entranceway of toxic substances into the body and, in EACH case, describe a circumstance in which an employee might be at risk of such exposure. (8) Most candidates successfully identified the routes of entry of toxic substances into the body as inhalation, ingestion, through the skin and by injection.Describing the circumstances in which an employee might be at risk in each case, however, proved a little more difficult. Examiners were looking for examples such as inhalation due to a build up of fume or vapour, either as part of a process (eg join) or accidentally (eg spillage) ingestion caused perhaps by poor personal hygiene (eg eating or smoking without first washing the hands) entry through the skin if wounds are not covered or by contact with chemicals (eg solvents) that may be preoccupied through the skin and injection possibly caused by the handling of contaminated sharp objects. Question 6Outline the pre cautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when work is carried out on a pitched (sloping) roof. (8)This question sought to test candidates knowledge of the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when working on sloping roofs. The majority provided reasonable answers and referred to many of the germane(predicate) precautions such as the provision of safe access to the roof- and roof edge protection, the use of crawling boards or roof ladders, delineateing and covering roof lights, arrangements for moving tools and materials to and from the roof, the issue and wearing of personal protective equipment such as helmets, footwear and harnesses, the employment of a trained and satisfactory manpower, and the need to stop the work activity during adverse weather conditions.Question 7 (a)Outline SIX factors to be considered when selecting suitable eye protection for use at work. (6) (b)Identify ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage of safety look comp ared with safety spectacles. (2) In tell part (a) of the question, most candidates referred to the need to ensure that the type of protective equipment is appropriate for the particular hazard against which protection is required (eg chemical, impact, ultraviolet light, molten metal). In this context, reference was usually do to the need for the equipment to meet quality and safety standards, in particular that it bears a CE mark. Comfort factors were also principally identified, as was compatibility with other equipment, including prescription spectacles.Other relevant factors to be considered include durability, cost, and maintenance and training requirements. Candidates loosely gained full marks for their answers to part (b) since there are several advantages and disadvantages of gawk from which only one of each was required. Advantages include the fact that goggles provide all round protection, particularly against projectiles and chemicals, and tend not to be easily displa ced. Disadvantages include the increased tendency of goggles to mist up, the by and large higher cost heterogeneous and the fact that they may be more ill-fitting than spectacles. Question 8Outline the possible risks to health and safety associated with lay paving slabs in a busy high street. (8)Examiners were looking to candidates to outline such risks as trap fingers, foot injuries and musculoskeletal problems from handling slabs the possibility of being struck by traffic injuries from the use of stark discs (eg contact with the disc and being struck by flying particles) the effects of exposure to noise, vibration, dust and cockeyed cement and the increased likeliness of tripping. Even though candidates might not have had personal take of the activity described, it was nevertheless one that could be envisioned quite easily in order to identify a good range of possible risks. A few candidates, however, again seemed not to have read the question carefully enough and concent rated on the control measures, for which no marks could be awarded.Question 9Outline the measures that should be taken to minimise the risk of fire from galvanic equipment. (8) In answering this question, Examiners expected candidates to outline measures such as the proper option of equipment to ensure its suitability for the task, pre-use inspection by the user, establishing correct fuse ratings, ensuring circuits and sockets are not overloaded, disconnecting or isolating the equipment when it is not in use, and ensuring that electric motors do not overheat (eg by checking that vents are uncovered). Additional measures include the need to uncoil cables (particularly extension leads) to prevent the build up of heat and protecting cables from mechanical damage.Importantly, galvanic equipment and systems should be subject to veritable(a) inspection, testing and maintenance by competent persons. This should ensure, for instance, that contacts are sound, thereby reducing the likelih ood of electrical arcing. While most candidates were able to outline some of the above measures, surprisingly few offered comprehensive answers. Of those who did identify a sufficient number of measures, some provided answers that were far too brief. For an outline, it was necessary to say something about how each measure reduces the risk of fire. Question 10(a)Identify TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. 2) (b) Explain where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. (6) In answering part (a) of this question, many candidates identified a variety of respiratory problems that were either non-specific or are not associated with asbestos. Pneumoconiosis and asthma were frequently given as examples. More intentional candidates referred specifically to asbestosis, mesothelioma or lung cancer. Part (b) was reasonably well answered with most candidates identifying, for instance, pipe lagging, roofing materials, loft and wall insulation, sprayed coatings (for example, in fire-resistant encapsulation of metal girders), and the use of asbestos in ceiling tiles, panels and textured finishes.Fewer mentioned the possibility of gaskets, packing and plugs made of asbestos-containing materials. Question 11List EIGHT non-mechanical hazards associated with machinery. (8) This was intended to be a straightforward question that should have been answered quickly as well as giving the candidates an opportunity to gain valuable marks. The list should have included such hazards as electricity, noise, vibration, radiation, extremes of temperature, fire and explosion, hazardous substances (both by direct contact with, for instance, oils and greases and by exposure to dust and fumes) and those related to insufficient attention to ergonomic issues.Some candidates included in their list, or even concentrated on exclusively, versatile mechanical hazards, for which no marks could be given. This suggests that they had either misread the question or did not fully appreciate the distinction between mechanical and non-mechanical machinery hazards. Paper A2, Question 1A newly established company is to repair existing office accommodation before recruiting staff. Outline (i)the welfare facilities that should be considered when planning the refurbishment(8) (ii)the main issues to be addressed in a general health and safety, induction programme(6) for the new staff (iii)the procedures that might be needed in order to ensure the health and safety of visitors to the premises during working hours(6)This question was generally answered quite well, probably because it was concerned with issues that were relatively straightforward and ones with which many candidates would have already been familiar. In answering part (i), candidates should have referred to the provision of sanitary conveniences, washing facilities, drinking water, eating and rest areas away from the work area, accommodation for clothing not worn at work and rest facilities for expectant and nursing mothers. Some candidates appeared not to notice that the work situation described was office-based and answered the question as though more dangerous activities were come to. Few offices, for instance, would be required to have footlocker rooms, or shower and changing facilities.In addition, a few candidates took a wider remit than was required by the question by referring to general welfare issues (eg heating, ventilation and other factors affecting comfort) rather than concentrating on the actual facilities for employee welfare. For part (ii), Examiners were looking for answers that referred to issues such as the company health and safety policy, emergency procedures, specific risks associated with the working environment, procedures for reporting incidents, first-aid arrangements, information on welfare facilities, consultation procedures and the responsibilities of employees. This part of the question seemed to cause some cand idates surprising difficulty with a few able to refer to little more than fire and other emergency issues and accident reporting.Any candidate who had visited a well-managed workplace should have had little difficulty in answering part (iii) by outlining procedures such as the initial reception process involving the registration of personal details and the issue of naming badges, the provision of information on site rules (including emergency procedures) and information on the hazards and risks within the establishment that might affect the visitor. Better candidates suggested that visitors should be supervised, and possibly escorted, at all times by a extremity of staff. Common to each of the three parts of the question was a requirement to provide an outline of the issues identified.It was insufficient in part (i), for instance, simply to specify sanitary conveniences without mentioning that they should be adequate in number in relation to the number of employees, separate for m en and women, and well lit and ventilated. Question 2Inadequate lighting in the workplace may affect the level of stress amongst employees. Outline EIGHT other factors associated with the physical environment that may increase, stress at work. This question required candidates to outline factors associated with the physical working environment that might increase levels of stress at work. Answers should have referred to factors such as cramped, dirty or untidy working onditions, workplace layout resulting in a lack of privacy or security, problems with glare, extremes of temperature and/or humidity, inadequate ventilation resulting in micturate air (or conversely, draughty conditions), exposure to noise and vibration, inadequate welfare facilities and, for those working outside, inclement weather conditions. Despite the clear signposting, many candidates referred to psychological (eg bullying) and organisational (eg work pressures) stressors instead of restricting their answers to the physical environment as required. Question 3Explain, using an example in EACH case, the meaning of the following terms (i) hazard(2) (ii) risk(3) (iii) so far as is reasonably practicable. (3) Examiners were disappointed, and a little surprised, to find that a significant number of candidates struggled to provide explanations of such ingrained health and safety terms.Additionally, in the case of those who did give reasonable explanations, they either then did not give examples or used inappropriate examples that suggested a lack of understanding of what had gone before. This was particularly so in relation to the term hazard. As far as risk was concerned, a number of candidates referred to the probability or likelihood of harm but did not expand their explanation to include the likely consequence in terms of the severity of such harm. In attempting to explain so far is as reasonably practicable, most candidates inferred that this involves fit risk against cost but fewer were a ble to go much further in explaining what this means in practical terms.Question 4In relation to the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1977, outline (i) the functions of a trade-union appointed safety proxy(6) (ii) the facilities that an employer may need to provide to safety representatives. (2) In answering part (i) of the question, candidates were expected to outline functions such as examining the causes of accidents, investigating complaints from employees, carrying out safety inspections, making representation to the employer, attending safety committee meetings, and representing employees in consultation with the enforcing authority and receiving information from its inspectors. There were some good answers to this part of the question where candidates were able to show their knowledge of the relevant part of the Regulations.Unfortunately, these were balanced by some very poor attempts from those who did not receive such knowledge. For part (ii), r eference should have been made to the provision of facilities such as a common soldier room in circumstances when this is necessary and access to a telephone, fax machine, photocopier and relevant reference material. Some candidates did not seem to appreciate the meaning of the word facilities and outlined instead the rights of safety representatives, such as those relating to training and the allocation of sufficient time to carry out their duties. Question 5 (a)Identify TWO situations where a permission-to-work system might be considered appropriate. (2) b) Outline the key elements of a permit-to-work system. (6) For part (a), most candidates were able to identify two situations where a permit-to-work system might be considered appropriate choosing from work in confined spaces, work in flammable atmospheres, work on electrical equipment, hot work, and maintenance work on dangerous process plant or production machinery. Part (b) of the question was not so well answered and relat ively few candidates were able to outline all the elements of a permit system, the first of which would be a exposition and assessment of the task to be performed (including the plant involved and the possible hazards).This will determine the need for, and nature of, other key elements namely, the isolation of sources of energy and inlets, the spare precautions required (eg atmospheric monitoring, PPE, emergency equipment) and the duration of the permit. An essential element of a permit-to-work system is, of course, the operation of the permit itself. By means of signatures, the permit should be issued by an authorised person and accepted by the competent person responsible for the work. On completion of the work, the competent person would need to indicate on the permit that the area had been made safe in order for the permit to be cancelled by the authorised person, after which the isolations could be removed. Question 6Outline the actors that may indicate a need for health sur veillance of employees in a workplace. (8) This question appeared to cause problems for many candidates, some of whom identified particular situations where health surveillance would be appropriate rather than outlining the factors that might indicate a need for it. In answering, candidates could have chosen from a variety of factors such as ill-health and absence records, first-aid treatments, complaints from employees, the findings of risk assessments, the results of inspections or monitoring activities, changes in methods of work and the relevant requirements of current legislation and approved codes of practice.Question 7Outline FOUR advantages and FOUR disadvantages of using propaganda posters to communicate health and safety information to the men. (8) Posters are a commonly used speciality for passing on health and safety messages to the workforce and many candidates will have used them or seen them in use. The question was generally well answered although some found more d ifficulty in outlining the disadvantages as opposed to the advantages. Advantages of posters include their relatively low cost, their flexibility, their brevity, their use in reinforcing verbal instructions or information and in providing a constant reminder of the importance of health and safety, and the potential to involve employees in their selection and hence in the message being conveyed.Disadvantages include the need to change posters on a regular basis if they are to be noticed, the fact that they may become soiled, defaced and out-of-date, and the possibility that they might appear to minimize serious matters. There may also be an over-reliance on posters to convey health and safety information and they may be perceived by unscrupulous employers as an easy, if not particularly effective, way of discharging their health and safety obligations by shifting the responsibility onto the workforce for any accidents that may occur. Question 8 (a) Identify FOUR factors relating to the individual that might increase the risk of accidents at work. (4) (b) Give reasons why maintenance operations may pose particular risks to those undertaking them. 4) This question produced a mixed response from candidates. In answering part (a), many could identify only one or two factors, most commonly the powerfully linked psychological factors of attitude and motivation. Only better candidates identified additional factors such as age, lack of skill or experience, lack of familiarity (or possibly overfamiliarity) with the workplace, high stress levels, and health problems, medical conditions or physical disability/incapacity (including that brought about by intoxicant or drugs). Similarly, for part (b) there were few candidates who were able to identify a range of relevant reasons for maintenance activities posing special risks.Such reasons may include the being of new or different hazards, the lack of familiarity or experience with the tasks or equipment involved, the like lihood that the events leading to the need for maintenance and their contingent hazards would be unpredictable, the possibility that the maintenance operations would have to be carried out in confined spaces or other poor work environments, and the inevitable pressure on maintenance staff to complete the work in as picayune a time as possible in order to return to normal production. Question 9Explain the difference between HSC Approved Codes of Practice and HSE guidance, giving an example of EACH. (8) Relatively few candidates performed well on this question. Most found it difficult to explain the essential differences between the two types of document and, when examples were given, they were often vague or incorrect. Approved Codes of Practice are approved by the Health and Safety Commission with the consent of the monument of State and provide a recognised explanation of how an employer may comply with relevant legislation.Although failure to comply with the provision of an ACO P is not in itself an offence, the failure may be cited in court in criminal proceedings as proof that there has been a contravention of the legislation to which the provision relates. Employees must either meet the standards contained in the ACOP or show that they have complied with an equal or better standard. A number of examples could have been cited such as the ACOPs complementing the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992 and the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999. Guidance, on the other hand, is issued by the Health and Safety Executive with the intention of giving advice on good practice. The advice is generally more practically based than that contained in an ACOP. Guidance has no legal standing in a court of law.Examples of HSE guidance documents include those issued on matters such as manual handling, display shield equipment and personal protective equipment. Question 10(a)In relation to risk assessments carried out under the Manag ement of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999, explain the meaning of the term suitable and sufficient. (3) (b)Outline the changes in circumstances that may require a risk assessment to be reviewed. (5) Examiners found that part (a) of this question elicited a generally poor response and few candidates were able to give an adequate explanation of the term suitable and sufficient in relation to risk assessment.Such an assessment should identify all significant hazards and risks, enable priorities to be set, allow the identification of the protective measures required, be appropriate to the nature of the work and be valid over a reasonable period of time. Part (b), in contrast, tended to attract some better answers, with candidates able to outline such circumstances as changes in process, work method or materials (type or quantity), the introduction of new plant or technology, new information becoming available, a change in legislation, changes in personnel (eg the employment of young or disabled persons), and when the results of monitoring (accidents, ill-health and environmental) are not as expected. Question 11Identify EIGHT measures that can be used to monitor an organisations, health and safety performance. 8) There are various indicators that an organisation can use to assess different aspects of its health and safety performance and Examiners were looking for answers containing a mixture of both proactive and reactive measures. Reactive performance measures include accident and ill-health statistics, incidents of reported near-misses and dangerous occurrences, actions taken by the enforcement authorities and insurance claims. Proactive measures, on the other hand, might include the results of inspections and/or environmental monitoring, safety audit outcomes and the results of medical/health surveillance. Some candidates restricted their answers to the identification of monitoring methods (such as safety nspections, tours and sampling) rather than t he measures that are derived from them and which can be compared over time. This sometimes throttle the number of marks that could be awarded. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1 IDENTIFYING AND CONTROLLING HAZARDS JUNE 1999 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. 1(a)List THREE types of crane used for lifting operations. (3) (b)Outline factors to be considered when assessing the suitability of a mobile crane for a lifting operation. (7) (c)Outline a procedure for the safe lifting and lowering of a load by use of a mobile crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. (10) Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. 2In relation to occupational dermatitis (i)identify TWO common causative agents(2) (ii)describe the typical symptoms of the condition (3) (iii)state the sources of information that may help to identify dermatitic substances in the workplace. (3) 3A pneumatic commit is to be used during extensive repair work to the floor of a busy warehouse. (i)Identify by means of a labelled sketch, THREE possible transmission paths the noise from the drill could take. (3) (ii)Outline appropriate control measures to reduce the noise exposures of the operator AND the warehouse staff. (5) 4State the health and safety risks associated with welding operations. (8) 5(a)Outline the effects on the human body from a severe electric shock. (4) (b)Describe how earthing can reduce the risk of receiving an electric shock. (4) 6Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the use of speci al footwear, explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. (8) The exterior paintwork of a row of shops in a busy high street is due to be repainted. Identify the hazards associated with the work and outline the corresponding precautions to be taken. (8) 8(a)Identify TWO types of non-ionising radiation, giving an occupational source of EACH. (4) (b)Outline the health effects associated with exposure to non-ionising radiation. (4) 9Explain the methods of heat transfer that cause the spread of fire. (8) 10(a)List TWO types of injury that may be caused by the incorrect manual handling of loads. (2) (b)Outline a good manual handling technique that could be adopted by a person required to lift a load from the ground. (6) 1List EIGHT safe practices to be followed when using a skip for the collection and removal of waste from a construction site. (8) NEBOSH Certificate June 1999 Paper A1 Identifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEB OSH examiners Report Section 1 Question 1 This question was designed to test candidates knowledge on the use and operation of cranes. Part (a) required candidates to identify three types of crane and it was envisaged that this would cause little difficulty, particularly